Not sure of date first published, it is in BT 1904
The Holy Spirit must be grieved by some of our interpretations of Scripture, but must be much more grieved by how we mistreat those who disagree with us.
What does Scripture say?
- “the children partake of blood and flesh {in one word: manhood}, he {the Lord} also, in like manner, took part in the same” (Heb 2:14)
- “the Word became flesh” (Joh 1:14)
So He partook of manhood. Reading the Gospels you see his godhead (which he ever had) as well as his manhood (of which he partook when he became flesh). Example: “And awaking up he rebuked the wind, and said to the sea, Silence; be mute. And the wind fell, and there was a great calm.” (Mark 4:39) He “awoke” (from sleep) because he was a perfect man (in other words: he had a perfect humanity/manhood) and slept on a pillow. And the wild sea obeyed Him because he was God (in other words: He had a divine personality).
I don’t think that WK in infallible, but is a strawman argumentation to make Kelly to say that the Lord Jesus was two persons. If Hennessy wrote “He was a human person as well as a divine person” I would disagree with this formulation but to say that He had (and has) a human personality as well as a divine personality is the truth. Even if WK’ language was inappropriate that does not whitewash FER.
If WK was unsound or dark in speaking about Christ “taking manhood into His person” so was J. N. Darby who used similar expressions:
- "His divine glory into which He has taken manhood is immutable" (Notes and Comments on Scripture, p. 317)
- “God and man were united in one person” (CW 29:213)
- “the union of Godhead and manhood in one Person” (CW 29:358)
- “He was alone, God and man in one person, but not united to men, to sinful corrupt man; but, having miraculously-formed sinless manhood in His own person. The union with Godhead was now, for the first time, and only here.” (CW 15:347)
- “it {Christ’s humanity} was united to Godhead” (CW 15:148)
- “the union of God and Man in His {Christ’s} Person” (CW 27:357)
- “The union of God and man in the Person of Christ is the centre” (Synopsis on Ephesians)
JND clearly held the doctrine that Christ had a human personality. Once he wrote: “Why does He say, ‘My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?’ if there was no ego, no human personality?” (CW 29:212) FER on the contrary denied this. When being asked: "Why is He not PERSONALLY man?" one would have expected that FER should confess the truth that He was personally man / had a human personality. But FER replied: "You cannot have two personalities in one." The sentence "You cannot have two personalities in one" can only mean: "You cannot have a human personality and a divine personality in one (namely Christ)."
That I haven’t misrepresented FER can be seen from other passages. FER said: “If you carry the thought of the incarnation beyond the scriptural limit, that is, form (that of a servant) and condition (flesh and blood), you cannot avoid, that I can see, reaching distinct personality, and so making two personalities in Christ, a divine and a human.” (Ministry FER 19:519) So it is clear, that for FER “making two personalities in Christ, a divine and a human” was not true.
JND rightly said: “The moment you deny personality in the man Christ Jesus, you run into a thousand difficulties and errors.” (CW 29:212) This was just the case with FER and some (not all!) of his followers. See an example: FER taught that Christ assumed a human “condition” in Incarnation (see the quotation above, also Ministry FER 3:272: “The truth of a divine Person assuming human condition”). According to FER’s false notion Christ’s human “condition” ended when He died at the cross and there was, therefore, no manhood in Christ from Friday-evening to Sunday-morning. Hear what FER said: “But it is the Person who left the condition {when Christ died}, which He had assumed {at the Incarnation}, to take it again {in resurrection - the allusion being to Joh 10:17}, and not as flesh and blood but still as Man, and meantime {that is: after His death and before His resurrection} He was in paradise.” (Ministry FER 19:520. Read the context to see that my remarks in braces are no misrepresentation and just what FER believed)
Be aware that manhood is for FER only a “condition” and then ask yourself what “the Person who left the condition” means. If FER’s words were true not only resurrection, but re-incarnation would be needed. This is what W. T. Whybrow rightly remarked and, once again, I recommend to read his little paper: The Truth of Christ's Person: Is It Taught by Mr. F.E. Raven?
FER denies the human personality of Christ and degrades it to a mere “condition”. If that is not heterodoxy, then I no longer know what else is heterodoxy.
Martin Arhelger
Nick,
1) I never heard of JND or WK using such language as FER.
2) It does not help that many, who went with FER, did not held his doctrines (WTPW, HS, FBH etc.). This does not whitewash FER. (Others, who went with FER repeated his evil doctrines, for example JT sen.)
3) It might be true that FER’s has been misunderstood sometimes. But this does not whitewash the evil doctrines which he had.
4) There were splits among those who followed FER and among those who refused FER. But this is no indicator of the truthfulness of FER’s doctrines.
It is not important what you or I believe (or want to believe) that FER held. FER’s own words will tell us. Please read FER’s article “The Person of Christ” (Ministry 19:519-520; this was written in 1895 but first published 1912 in “Mutual Comfort”) to see what FER really thought.
Take the last paragraph. How do you understand FER’s words “the Person who left the condition, which He had assumed”? Please tell me your interpretation of these words. Here is my understanding of FER (a bit more expanded, in braces):
“But it is the Person {of Christ} who left the condition {of his manhood at the time when He died on the cross}, which {condition of manhood} He had assumed {at the Incarnation}, to take it again {in resurrection, see Joh 10:17}, and not as flesh and blood {as during His lifetime until He died, Heb 2:14} but still as Man {in a new condition in resurrection}, and meantime {after His death and until His resurrection} He was in paradise {and there was no condition of manhood in paradise}.” I don't comment on these evil docrines; I simply try to understand these words of FER in their own context. Can you make another sense of these words?
Martin Arhelger